Does kernel run with PID=0?
From: jm (anonymous_at_discussions.microsoft.com)
Date: 02/27/04
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Date: Thu, 26 Feb 2004 18:21:07 -0800
Hi,
Was going through the shared source code and was trying to figure out how the kernel gets initialized...
1. Does kernel get assigned PID=0?
2. With a min-kern configuration for headless device, the kernel creates 2 threads (from the PB Help). Is this correct?
3. For ARM based implementation, I can calculate where the Translation Address Table should be located for our implementation, but while stepping through the code, I find a different address. Where does this get set? How do I correct this?
4. While stepping : KernelInit() -> calls -> SchedInit() -> calls -> VirtualMemoryAlloc(). This function is returning 0xc2010000 which is a non-mapped address and hence the function MDCreateThread() that uses this address fails. Does this sound like a good address - it looks like it is looking at the wrong location for the translation tables.
Any inputs appreciated.
Regards,
jm
- Previous message: Rui Tang: "Re: Bootloader.....Global variable Problem"
- Next in thread: Steve Maillet \(eMVP\): "Re: Does kernel run with PID=0?"
- Reply: Steve Maillet \(eMVP\): "Re: Does kernel run with PID=0?"
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