Re: Use of Multiple Public IP Addresses

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OK, guys. Thanks! Do you see any problem in using the DMZ port of a
Linksys BEFSR41 router for connecting to the VPN NIC?



On Fri, 26 Oct 2007 20:51:39 -0500, Jeffrey Randow
<jeffreycentex@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

Correct... It doesn't require a public IP if you properly forward
packets...

---
Jeffrey Randow
jeffreycentex@xxxxxxxxx
Windows Networking MVP 2001-2006
http://www.networkblog.net

On Fri, 26 Oct 2007 18:04:49 -0700, Bob Felton
<bob123.removethis@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

So, even though MSKB 323381 says the VPN NIC must be "connected
directly to the Internet", it doesn't mean it needs a public IP
address?


On Sat, 27 Oct 2007 10:52:37 +1000, "Bill Grant"
<not.available@online> wrote:

It really depends on what your router can do an how it does it. You
should somehow be able to allocate the extra IP to the public interface of
the router (or allocate your public IPs to an address pool) and map the
second public IP to a private IP on the LAN. All traffic arriving at the
router using this IP would be mapped to the remote access server on the LAN
(which has just one NIC with a private IP address).

"Bob Felton" <bob123.removethis@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:rro4i3lvd7nt1hvhhje9aonmvg9v6gsphb@xxxxxxxxxx
Our ISP is providing us two public IP addresses over our full T1
connection. One is being used by our Linksys router (directly
connected to the T1 "modem". I would like to utilize the second
public IP address to allow VPN connections to our Windows Server 2003
R2 SP2 based network by adding a second NIC card to the server and
assigning it the second public IP address. Do I simply break the
current connection between the T1 modem and Linksy router, connect the
modem to a switch, and then connect the router to one switch port and
the second NIC to another switch port? Thanks.
--
Bob Felton

--
Bob Felton
.

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