How to use a router provided VPN?

anonymous_at_discussions.microsoft.com
Date: 02/23/04 

Date: Sun, 22 Feb 2004 22:08:58 -0800

Marty,
If you're setting up a VPN then they both need to be in
the same private ip octet, eg. 192.168.1.1 and
192.168.1.2 also the subnets should be the same.
Personally I always put routers from 1-10 in vpns,
workstations in the 100-200's and printers in the 50's.

Mark

>-----Original Message-----
>I've got a T1, a D-Link DI-804HV VPN firewall/router, a
>peer-to-peer network and an XP Pro machine that acts as
a
>workstation and our workgroup server at the office. At
>the house, I've got another XP Pro, and a WIN98 SE
machine
>on another peer-to-peer network behind another DI-
804HV.
>The DI-804HV can provide encrypted VPN tunnels. I've
got
>a tunnel defined, complete with IKE and IPSec
proposals.
>D-Link says I'm finished when I can ping a machine on
the
>opposite subnet, which I can do. The Router logs also
>indicate that the tunnel is up.
>
>So how do I use this? The goal is to be able to run
multi-
>user software applications on the home computers using
the
>data that is in the XP Pro box at the office, just like
we
>would from other peer-to-peer machines at the office.
>
>Now I'm assuming that since the encryption is being done
>by the firewall, and I can already ping the far end
subnet
>machines, this is not a standard Windows type VPN
dialled
>connection, which does it's own encryption. I have no
>idea how to go about getting Windows to use this
tunnel.
>I've tried making the workgroup names the same on both
>ends and browsing. No luck. How do I map a drive, or
>otherwise enable a machine at one end to use data at the
>other end? The subnets do not have overlapping IP
>addresses. One starts with 192.168.0.1, the other is
>192.168.1.1. Will the machines have to have common
subnet
>addresses?
>
>TIA,
>Marty
>.
>

Relevant Pages

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