Re: Permissions
- From: "Tibor Karaszi" <tibor_please.no.email_karaszi@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 17 Jun 2009 08:04:03 +0200
Do the objects have the same owner (owner, not schema)?
--
Tibor Karaszi, SQL Server MVP
http://www.karaszi.com/sqlserver/default.asp
http://sqlblog.com/blogs/tibor_karaszi
"Andy" <andy.johnstone@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message news:7d4609b1-f6ce-4520-bffb-c1a86e74c56c@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Hi,
I have a table, myTable, in a schema named Schema1. I then created a
view, dbo.MyTable and granted select permissions to certain database
roles. The permissions on Schema1.myTable are left unchanged (no
explicit grant or denies). Now, I've always been under the impression
that a user in one of the granted roles for the view would be able to
select rows from the view just fine.
What has been happening is that I'm also needing to grant select
permission on myTable.
Is that how its supposed to work? This is Sql Server 2005 Standard,
SP3.
Thanks
Andy
.
- References:
- Permissions
- From: Andy
- Permissions
- Prev by Date: Re: Sql server 2000 SP4
- Next by Date: Re: remove extra log files
- Previous by thread: Permissions
- Next by thread: Re: Permissions
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|
