Re: Anticipated Finish Variance
- From: "Trevor Rabey - Perfect Project Planning" <trevorATperfectproject.com.au>
- Date: Fri, 6 Feb 2009 14:08:45 +0900
Every Task has a Finish Date.
Starting from a presumption that you are scheduling forwards from the start,
that date is either the planned earliest finish date (if the Task is not
complete) or the Actual Finish (if the Task is complete).
It must be one or the other, it cannot be non-existent.
When MSP calculates Finish Variance it compares that date to the Baseline
Finish.
--
Trevor Rabey
0407213955
61 8 92727485
PERFECT PROJECT PLANNING
www.perfectproject.com.au
"Luca" <Luca@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:4480E0DB-169E-4D23-9E01-0FD2C324DBF1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
HI - Thanks Rod,
The problem is that my programme won't update the finish var. until I have
put in an actual finish date. For tasks which have a % complete value
entered
but isn't finished yet (so no actual finish date) the finish var. column
remains as 0.
Can you please help.
Luca
"Rod Gill" wrote:
Hi,
If I create a Task that finishes on Dec 5 '08 and save the baseline for
it
then delay it to finish on Feb 6 the Finish variance = 45d which is 45
working days based on the Project calendar.
When you update % complete, make sure you delay any incomplete work to
the
date it will restart. With a baseline the finish variance should
calculate
as you go, no need to wait for an actual finish date.
--
Rod Gill
Microsoft MVP for Project
Author of the only book on Project VBA, see:
http://www.projectvbabook.com
"Luca" <Luca@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:166EB14C-14C2-4683-8FA1-00862A1FF0AF@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Hi There,
A client has asked if an anticipated finish var. column could be added
to
show how late (or early) a task is anticipated to finish, i.e
10days, -2days
etc.
He has said that the anticipated date is to be calculated using the
overall
duration of the task, multiplied by by the %complete plus the current
delay,
i.e task goes for 29 days and 90% complete, therefore = 3 days left to
complete plus current delay which is current date (say 06/02/09) less
programme finish date (say 05/12/08) = 64 days behind schedule (3 +
61).
So
in the anticipated column you would have in there -64 days.
I have a Finish Var column but obviously that shows '0' until I insert
an
actual finish date so then the programme can compare the planned finish
date
to the actual finish date and establish the difference.
Can someone please explain if you can have an anticipated finish var.
column
and how I can set up the formula so it reflects what I have explained
above.
Many Thanks - Luca
.
- References:
- Anticipated Finish Variance
- From: Luca
- Re: Anticipated Finish Variance
- From: Rod Gill
- Re: Anticipated Finish Variance
- From: Luca
- Anticipated Finish Variance
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