Re: Is Class Synonymous with Type?
- From: "Dave Sexton" <dave@jwa[remove.this]online.com>
- Date: Wed, 6 Dec 2006 23:46:46 -0500
Hi Mark,
There is no evidence of anybody's particular level of experience or
knowledge other than the very few people posting
Exactly. There is no actual evidence that anyone was confused by the post.
Hence, any assumption that the post was confusing is a priori, not
empirical.
But you've only addressed half of my point. There is also no evidence that
it helped anyone, so you have no base for your claim.
I was suggesting that we can't know either way, with any degree of
certainty, unless we were to take a poll or something. Therefore, it's best
to be as clear as possible when posting since you never really no who will
be reading it.
As for any OP's level of expertise, what you assume as a respondent may set
the basis for the amount of detail in your reply, but any assumptions made
thereof should by no means allow a reduction in clarity in any form.
, and any assumptions you make thereof is a priori, not empirical.
D'oh! :)
;)
Everybody's needs should be catered to here seeing that it's a public
newsgroup
It is impossible to cater to everyone's needs.
It's not impossible to try.
and that can't be done accurately and clearly using loose terminology.
What we're arguing about is the definition of "loose." A type theorist
might say that any definition that uses words instead of mathematical
symbols is "loose."
Our [discussion] isn't focused on the definition of "loose". It's quite
obvious to everyone, AFAICT, that the terms used in the original response
aren't C# terms that apply to the subject matter, and therefore can be
considered "loose" within a C# newsgroup.
Regardless, and what I think the actual [discussion] was about, is that you
don't think overloading terms is ambiguous, correct? (I ask regardless of
context, since the point of clarity is to reduce the amount of assumptions
that must be made in order to better understand the written material.)
--
Dave Sexton
.
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