Re: Is Class Synonymous with Type?

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Hi Mark,

<snip>

Yes, we can know whether or not there -seems- to have been confusion.
There
doesn't. That doesn't mean none exists, but there's no evidence that it
does.

I can't see there's any evidence either way. It's like me saying that
you don't seem to have any knowledge of music - I have no evidence
either way, so you *could* argue that it's a valid statement.

I do argue that that's a valid statement. It's completely, 100% true.

The example isn't pertinent here, though, since this newsgroup is about C#
(and explanations thereof), not music, and one's knowledge of C# is quite
in evidence here.

I do have evidence for my belief about the definition:

1) Based on my knowledge of and experience with programmers, I don't think
the definition would be confusing to most or even some of them.

2) No one has expressed confusion.

Hence, 3) It seems that the definition is not confusing.

Do I -know- that invisible pink hippos don't orbit Saturn? It just seems
pretty likely that they do not, based on reasoning enumerated above. Pace
Donald Rumsfeld, the absence of evidence -is- evidence (though not proof)
of absence.

There is no evidence of anybody's particular level of experience or
knowledge other than the very few people posting, and any assumptions you
make thereof is a priori, not empirical. I'm sure there are many more
people from all over the world reading this thread, with experience varying
in great degree, other than just the few that are participating in this
conversation. Everybody's needs should be catered to here seeing that it's
a public newsgroup, and that can't be done accurately and clearly using
loose terminology.

I hope that's clear enough :)

--
Dave Sexton


.

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